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Total War Heaven » Forums » Rome: Total War Discussion » Why was Maximus (Gladiator) known as the Spaniard?
Topic Subject:Why was Maximus (Gladiator) known as the Spaniard?
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posted 28 April 2005 08:03 EDT (US)         
I have been arguing with my friends about this for ages and i really want to know why the hell is Maximus known as the Spaniard? is he from Spain? if he is then why is he a big Roman general? should he of started out in the auxillary? if he was then he could have only come out after his time in there was finished and even then he would have only got a Roman citizenship.

So please if anyone knows please let me know cos im sick of arguin with my mates about it (Im going to look stupid if im wrong) Cheers

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posted 30 April 2005 15:46 EDT (US)     26 / 32       
My comment was directed at the fact that MA was the last good emperor. There were about four or five Emperors that were chosen for their abilities, and not due to downright succession. If MA had been without a son, the tradition would have continued, and perhaps would even have become a stronger tradition than inheritence, thus when an emperor is chosen and that emperor has a son, the next emperor would still be chosen from the senate.

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posted 30 April 2005 18:01 EDT (US)     27 / 32       
But the 5 good emperors that MA was the last of all adopted each other. Thus the imperial throne passed from father to (adoptive) son. And that fact that MA made Commodus his junior co-emperor would leed me to believe that he thought Commodus could do the job.

Your monarchist friend Lars


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posted 30 April 2005 18:19 EDT (US)     28 / 32       
While its true that originally the non-Italian provinces were considered non-Roman over time grants of citizenship were granted on a increasingly large scale throughout the empire. Especially in the reigns of emperors such as Hadrian so by this point many people in the empire would have been Roman citizens including Spain. As Lars573 says the last five emperors that MA was the last of were adopted by the previous emperor and were not chosen at all by the senate. It had been a long time since the senate had actually had any real power, although lip service was still given to the idea of almost a constitutional kingship (well emperorship I guess, the Romans apparently hated kings).

The last time (I believe) the senate made any attempt at regaining power was immediately after the assassination of Caligula when elements of the Senate tried to take control of the city guard, yet this ploy failed due to lack of support and the hostility of the army and people of Rome.

posted 01 May 2005 02:53 EDT (US)     29 / 32       
"Felix" means "happy" in Latin .

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posted 01 May 2005 03:52 EDT (US)     30 / 32       
I Would tell you why he's called a Spaniard.

Cause, the film producers say so.

posted 26 November 2017 13:56 EDT (US)     31 / 32       
it doesn't make any sense for him to be known as The Spaniard. There was no Spain during the rule of Roman Empire. The Iberian peninsula was called Hispania, not Spain. Although the word Spain was eventually derived from Hispania, the country called Spain didn't exist until the union of the Kingdoms of Aragon and Castille in 1469. So, a person from Hispania would not be called a Spaniard, cause there were no Spanish or Spain.

This is just a case of the producers and writers being historically obtuse.

[This message has been edited by HistoryMystery (edited 11-26-2017 @ 01:57 PM).]

Terikel Grayhair
(id: Terikel706)
posted 28 November 2017 13:10 EDT (US)     32 / 32       
I think they used the English word to get across the idea that the character had his home somewhere in Roman Iberia (Hispana). My Latin is really rusty (haven't used it in a thousand years or so), but I cannot recall the word meaning "man born of Roman citizens who settled in Hispana."

I am sure they had one. They had a word for everything.

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